wait wait wait, i thought the whole point of this was the insinuation that he was homophonic and is blamed for creating gay work camps and committing human rights violations against gay people. this person lays out a detailed rebuttal on the major talking points that would back the accusers assertions… but now it’s “well everyone at the time was homophobic!, so i am still technically right!”

so you do know there is a difference between someone who uses the word gay to mean bad or gross, and someone who commands the creation of concentration camps to commit human rights violations against gay people right?

it’s a little dishonest. is this moving the goal post?