There is an argument that free will doesn’t exist because there is an unbroken chain of causality we are riding on that dates back to the beginning of time. Meaning that every time you fart, scratch your nose, blink, or make lifechanging decisions there is a pre existing reason. These reasons might be anything from the sensory enviornment you were in the past minute, the hormone levels in your bloodstream at the time, hormones you were exposed to as a baby, or how you were parented growing up. No thought you have is really original and is more like a domino affect of neurons firing off in reaction to what you have experienced. What are your thoughts on this?

  • bstix@feddit.dk
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    47 seconds ago

    I don’t think free will can be dismissed just because the framework that it runs on is deterministic.

    Let’s say you program a text editor. A computer runs the program, but the computer has no influence on what text the user is going to write.

    I think that consciousness is a user like that. It runs on deterministic hardware but it’s not necessarily deterministic due to that. It might be for other reasons, but the laws of physics isn’t it, because physics doesn’t prohibit free will from existing.

    Consciousness is wildly complex. It’s a self illusion and we really have no good idea about where decisions even come from.

    If it is deterministic, it would have to involve every single atom in the universe that in one way or another have influenced the person. Wings of a butterfly and light from distant stars etc. Attempting to predict it would require a simulation of everything. That leads to other questions. If a simulation is a 1:1 replica of the real thing, which one is then real and what happens if we run it backwards, can we see what caused the big bang, etc.

    So, even if this is about free will, the enquiry falls short on trying to figure out what even causes anything to happen at all.

    If we are happy with accepting that the universe was caused by something before or outside the universe, then it’s really easy to point in that direction and say that free will also comes from there - somewhere outside the deterministic physics.

    Of course the actual universe and the laws of physics are really not separate as data and functions. The data itself contains the instructions. Any system that can contain itself that way is incomplete as proved by Kurt Gödel’s incompleteness theorem. Truths do exist that can’t be proven so perhaps the concept of free will is an example of such a thing, or maybe it’s not. The point is that we can’t rule it out, just because it exists in a deterministic system.

    Personally I don’t think it matters all that much. Similarly to how we can only ever experience things that exists inside of the universe,or see the light that hits our eye, we can also only ever hope to experience free will on the level of our own consciousness, even if we acknowledge that it is influenced by all kinds of other things from all levels from atoms to the big bang.

    • lagoon8622@sh.itjust.works
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      12 minutes ago

      It can’t hold up in court. It ultimately does not matter whether someone is compelled to do evil, or chooses to do evil. Society must be protected in either case

  • BlueSquid0741@lemmy.sdf.org
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    2 hours ago

    There’s a documentary about having free will to create your own fate and determine your own future. It’s called Terminator 2 Judgment Day.

    Anyway, the whole thing goes: The future’s not set. There’s no fate but what we make for ourselves.

  • povario@discuss.tchncs.de
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    3 hours ago

    no. events and our decisions are abstracted far enough so that the illusion of free will is apparent. I think it’s very well impossible to fully distinguish between free will and fate from our limited perspective

  • SunshineJogger@feddit.org
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    10 hours ago

    Free will is real and it’s an illusion at the same time.

    Our actions are reactions. And we are very limited in our execution of will by the most basic physical boundaries. For example I cannot fly, no matter how much I will it to be so.

    We have free will to control the actions of the biological apparatus which is our body, to an extent, though even those are limited by circumstances and consequences.

    Overall we have limited free will, or free will “lite”

  • Amnesigenic@lemmy.ml
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    15 hours ago

    There’s no evidence for free will. Every physical process involved in the function of our bodies and brains has so far proven to be deterministic in every way we can verify. That doesn’t mean you can’t have an original thought though, it just means that any original thought you have was necessarily going to happen and couldn’t possibly have happened any other way. It’s fate.

  • possiblyaperson@sh.itjust.works
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    18 hours ago

    I’m not sold on the whole universe being deterministic, but Robert Sapolsky has a book called Determined which has pretty much convinced me that we don’t have any agency. He’s a neuroscientist, and breaks down what goes in to our actions based on the immediate causes, our environment, our upbringing, our culture, and, in my opinion, doesn’t really leave a place for agency to remain. I don’t really understand his arguments well enough to articulate them here, but I think he’s done some interviews on YouTube which I’m sure will cover the gist of it.

  • absGeekNZ@lemmy.nz
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    8 hours ago

    OK let’s just start with the assertion that there of a casual link back to the beginning of time.

    We will begin with the big one first. We don’t even know if time had a beginning.

    If we assume that time began at the instant of the big bang. There is no plausible link between my bean induced fart, and some random energy fluctuation, there are just too many chaotic interactions between then and now.

    There are so many things we don’t know, making the extremely bold claim that free will doesn’t exist, is dangerously naive.

    We can’t even solve Navier-Stokes; neuronal interaction is so far beyond what we are currently capable of, it’s ridiculous.

    My recommendation to anyone contemplating this question. Assume free will exists; if you are wrong, it will made no difference; you were destined to believe that anyway.

    • gon [he]@lemm.ee
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      8 hours ago

      This seems like a very weird way to look at the issue.

      For one, not being able to understand minute, uncountable connections and interactions doesn’t mean we can’t realize a broader relationship of causality between them and our own actions. There are many things we don’t know - that’s right and undeniable - but there are also many things we do know, or at least that we think we know. Sure, you can go around saying “we understand so little about [virtually any scientific discipline], might as well assume that whatever soothes my psyche is true,” but just because the first part of that statement is true doesn’t mean the whole thing is reasonable. In my opinion, by the way, it isn’t reasonable.

      Assume free will exists; if you are wrong, it will made no difference;

      Here’s a question for you: if you assume free will doesn’t exist, what difference does it make? I mean, you still feel like it exists, you live your life as if experiencing it, and regardless of whether you, as an individual, believe it or not, the world continues on as if it does exist. I really see no difference, in practical terms, between believing free will exists or not.

      A little off-topic, but this reminds me of those people that say that morality can’t exist outside of religion. You say you’re an atheist, and then they ask you why you don’t go around killing people. Hopefully you understand what I’m talking about here.

      • absGeekNZ@lemmy.nz
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        7 hours ago

        It is not really weird, OP is arguing that the universe itself is deterministic. Taking a mechanistic approach to refuting that claim is perfectly valid.

        There are a myriad of examples of physical processes that are chaotic, this invalidates OP’s claim.

        To address the morality point, if God is the source of goodness and morality; beyond the question of “which God?” ; it means objective morality doesn’t exist, because God can change it’s mind about what is “good”.

        But that is a discussion finds a different threat.

  • minibyte@sh.itjust.works
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    4 hours ago

    You’re describing the free will vs predestination debate we had often in theology discussion. Ours never went anywhere, so I won’t be much help. I just wanted to put a name on it for you. Might help in your search.

  • MrFunkEdude@piefed.social
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    20 hours ago

    In a deterministic reality, where all things are due and subject to causation, there can be no free will. If we did not live in a causal reality, we’d never be able to make accurate predictions or models.

    “Randomness” is not free will either. If you’re not in complete control of your influences, then you can not be said to have free will. Randomness does nothing to help the argument for free will.

    With that said. Regardless of the existence of free will, what does exists is your awareness of what it’s like to be you. To be in the circumstances that currently govern your life. And in that awareness exists the boundless capacity for compassion. Once you understand that no one is in control of their lives, that all things are causal, it allows you to be less judgmental.

    "If a man is crossing a river and an empty boat collides with his own skiff, he will not become angry. He will simply guide his boat around it.

    But if he sees a person in the boat, he will shout at the other to steer clear. If the shout is not heard, and the boats collide, he will curse the other person.

    Yet, if the boat were empty, he would not be angry."

    — Chuang Tzu (Zhuangzi)

    I wrote a simple explanation of determinism in a blog post earlier this year (there’s an audio version available as well.) https://mrfunkedude.wordpress.com/2024/12/03/following-the-strings/

    • FooBarrington@lemmy.world
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      20 hours ago

      Just pointing this out - we don’t live in a deterministic reality. Quantum interactions are inherently probabilistic and can’t be predetermined. This usually doesn’t matter, but you can chain larger classical systems onto quantum interactions (i.e. Schrödingers cat), which makes them non-deterministic as well.

      • MrFunkEdude@piefed.social
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        19 hours ago

        Thanks for the reply.

        “inherently probabilistic and can’t be determined” is just another way of saying “random” or “we don’t know yet”.

        If reality was not deterministic, the reliability of models and predictions in physics would be upended.

        • FooBarrington@lemmy.world
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          18 hours ago

          “inherently probabilistic and can’t be determined” is just another way of saying “random” or “we don’t know yet”.

          Well yes, it means “random”. Of course there’s always a chance that we’re just missing something fundamental, but it would mean that literally every model we have is completely wrong. Unless we find indications for that (and there don’t seem to be any so far) I think it’s fair to assume that quantum interactions are actually random.

          If reality was not deterministic, the reliability of models and predictions in physics would be upended.

          No, because reality is not deterministic, yet the reliability of models and predictions in physics is not upended. There simply are enough of these interactions happening that, in the “macro” world, we can talk about them deterministically, since they are probabilistic. But that doesn’t mean the “micro” interactions are deterministic, and it also doesn’t mean it’s impossible for a “macro” interaction to be non-deterministic - again, the example of Schrödingers cat comes to mind.

          You could literally build a non-deterministic experiment right now if you wanted to.

          • pcalau12i@lemmy.world
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            17 hours ago

            In a sense it is deterministic. It’s just when most people think of determinism, they think of conditioning on the initial state, and that this provides sufficient constraints to predict all future states. In quantum mechanics, conditioning on the initial state does not provide sufficient constraints to predict all future states and leads to ambiguities. However, if you condition on both the initial state and the final state, you appear to get determinstic values for all of the observables. It seems to be deterministic, just not forwards-in-time deterministic, but “all-at-once” deterministic. Laplace’s demon would just need to know the very initial conditions of the universe and the very final conditions.

            • FooBarrington@lemmy.world
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              10 hours ago

              Hm, I’m not sure if I understand the abstract correctly.

              Say I build two Schrödingers cat experiments next to each other, and connect them so that each vial dispersing the poison also makes the other vial disperse poison. I go away, and come back to both vials having triggered and both nuclear decays having occurred. How could I determine the path the whole system took?

              • pcalau12i@lemmy.world
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                7 hours ago

                I am not that good with abstract language. It helps to put it into more logical terms.

                It sounds like what you are saying is that you begin with something a superposition of states like (1/√2)(|0⟩ + |1⟩) which we could achieve with the H operator applied to |0⟩ and then you make that be the cause of something else which we would achieve with the CX operator and would give us (1/√2)(|00⟩ + |11⟩) and then measure it. We can call these t=0 starting in the |00⟩ state, then t=1 we apply H operator to the least significant, and then t=2 is the CX operator with the control on the least significant.

                I can’t answer it for the two cats literally because they are made up it a gorillion particles and computing it for all of them would be computationally impossible. But in this simple case you would just compute the weak values which requires you to also condition on the final state which in this case the final states could be |00⟩ or |11⟩. For each observable, let’s say we’re interested in the one at t=x, you construct your final state vector by starting on this final state, specifically its Hermitian transpose, and multiplying it by the reversed unitary evolution from t=2 to t=x and multiply that by the observable then multiply that by the forwards-in-time evolution from t=0 to t=x multiplied by the initial state, and then normalize the whole thing by dividing it by the Hermitian transpose of the final state times the whole reverse time evolution from t=2 to t=0 and then by the final state.

                In the case where the measured state at t=3 is |00⟩ we get for the observables (most significant followed by least significant)…

                • t=0: (0,0,+1);(+1,+i,+1)
                • t=1: (0,0,+1);(+1,-i,+1)
                • t=2: (0,0,+1);(0,0,+1)

                In the case where the measured state at t=3 is |11⟩ we get for the observables…

                • t=0: (0,0,+1);(-1,-i,+1)
                • t=1: (0,0,+1);(+1,+i,-1)
                • t=2: (0,0,-1);(0,0,-1)

                The values |0⟩ and |1⟩ just mean that the Z observable has a value of +1 or -1, so if we just look at the values of the Z observables we can rewrite this in something a bit more readable.

                • |00⟩ → |00⟩ → |00⟩
                • |00⟩ → |01⟩ → |11⟩

                Even though the initial conditions both began at |00⟩ they have different values on their other observables which then plays a role in subsequent interactions. The least significant qubit in the case where the final state is |00⟩ begins with a different signage on its Y observable than in the case when the outcome is |11⟩. That causes the H opreator to have a different impact, in one case it flips the least significant qubit and in another case it does not. If it gets flipped then, since it is the control for the CX operator, it will flip the most significant qubit as well, but if it’s not then it won’t flip it.

                Notice how there is also no t=3, because t=3 is when we measure, and the algorithm guarantees that the values are always in the state you will measure before you measure them. So your measurement does reveal what is really there.

                If we say |0⟩ = no sleepy gas is released and the cat is awake, and |1⟩ = sleepy gas is released and the cat go sleepy time, then in the case where both cats are observed to be awake when you opened the box, at t=1: |00⟩ meaning the first one’s sleepy gas didn’t get released, and so at t=2: |00⟩ it doesn’t cause the other one’s to get released. In the case where both cats are observed to be asleep when you open the box, then t=1: |01⟩ meaning the first one’s did get released, and at t=2: |11⟩ that causes the second’s to be released.

                When you compute this algorithm you find that the values of the observables are always set locally. Whenever two particles interact such that they become entangled, then they will form correlations for their observables in that moment and not later when you measure them, and you can even figure out what those values specifically are.

                To borrow an analogy I heard from the physicist Emily Adlam, causality in quantum mechanics is akin to filling out a Sudoku puzzle. The global rules and some “known” values constrains the puzzle so that you are only capable of filling in very specific values, and so the “known” values plus the rules determine the rest of the values. If you are given the initial and final conditions as your “known” values plus the laws of quantum mechanics as the global rules constraining the system, then there is only one way you can fill in these numbers, those being the values for the observables.

                • FooBarrington@lemmy.world
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                  7 hours ago

                  Sorry, it’s been a long time since I last looked at the mathematical side of quantum mechanics, so most of your comment flew over my head. Let me put it in as simple terms as I can:

                  If there are multiple paths a system can take to reach a final state, how can you accurately determine which path was taken if you only know the initial & final state? IMO this shouldn’t be possible.

    • whotookkarl@lemmy.world
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      18 hours ago

      You could become convinced your perception of it is an illusion and not reality as it actually is, then you would have no choice not to believe it.